A function is additive if $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$. Intuitively, it might seem that an additive function from R to R must be linear, specifically of the form $f(x) = kx$. But assuming the axiom of choice, that is wrong, and the proof is rather simple: you just take a Hamel basis of $\mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $\mathbb{Q}$, and then you define your function f to be different in at least two distinct elements of the basis.
But my question is this: if there is no Hamel basis of $\mathbb{R}$, then must $f$ be linear? To put it another way, does ZF + the existence of a nonlinear additive function imply the existence of Hamel basis of $\mathbb{R}$?
I checked the Consequences of the Axiom of Choice Project, a database of choice axioms and their relationships here, and it said that it didn't know.
To my knowledge this is an open problem.
If one looks at Herrlich The Axiom of Choice, there is a diagram (7.23, p. 156) of implications related to non-measurable sets (which include discontinuous solution to the Cauchy functional equation problem), one can see that this is pretty far down below the existence of a Hamel basis.
Had it been known to be equivalent, an arrow back would be there -- and the book is not that old.
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