Let:
$A,B,C$ be non-empty sets.
$P(z)$ is a one variable proposition.
Then are the following propositions equivalent?
$\forall\ z \in C, P(z)$
$\forall\ x \in A, [\forall\ z \in C, P(z)] $
$\exists\ x \in A, [\forall\ z \in C, P(z)] $
$\forall\ x \in A, \forall\ y \in B, [\forall\ z \in C, P(z)] $
$\forall\ x \in A, \exists\ y \in B, [\forall\ z \in C, P(z)] $
$\exists\ x \in A, \forall\ y \in B, [\forall\ z \in C, P(z)] $
$\exists\ x \in A, \exists\ y \in B, [\forall\ z \in C, P(z)] $
If yes, why?