A subset $I$ of a ring/semiring $R$ is said to be an ideal of $R$ if $x+y\in I$ for all $x,y\in I$ and $x.a\in I$($a.x\in I$) for all $a\in R$. Since $0\in R,$ $x.0\in I$ for all $x\in I$ or $0\in I.$ This shows that the identity $0$ necessarily belongs to $I$. Is this intuition correct?
2026-03-25 09:26:09.1774430769
Does an ideal of a ring/semiring necessarily contain identity?
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That's not just intuition. It's an actual proof that any ideal must contain the additive identity.