Say one is asked to prove something about set $X$, and part of the given conditions is that $X$ is countable. Your proof starts with
"Let $f: X \mapsto \Bbb{N}$ be a counting function for $X$ and ..."
and the proof proceed to use $f$ to demonstrate that which was to be proven.
Now if $X$ were finite, one could start with "Let $f: X \mapsto \{ 1, 2, \ldots |X|\}$," this requires just the axiom of finite choice and everybody is OK with that.
If I needed to deal with a collection of countable sets $X_i : i\in I$ where $I$ is infinite, then starting with "$\forall i \in I$ let $f_i: X_i \mapsto \Bbb{N} $ be a counting function for $X_i$ and ..." then I have relied on the Axiom of Choice.
Here, though, I need to choose just one counting function -- but in general (not knowing anything about $X$ other than that it is countable) choosing that counting function appears to require an infinite number of choices.
My question is, has such a proof assumed the Axiom of Choice, or not.
For some couintable sets, for example the rationals, it is possible to algorithmically specify a particular counting function, so for such sets this question does not arise. But perhaps there are countable sets for which one cannot specify algorithmically specify a particular counting function, in which case my question applies. If there are no such sets, that is itself an interesting theorem.
No, you do not need the axiom of choice there. The point is that $X$ is countable iff it has a counting function. You are only making one choice - you are choosing an element from $\{$counting functions on $X\}$, which you know (by hypothesis) to be non-empty.