I feel like this must be a monumentally stupid question. Say $X$ is a Banach space, $S\subset X^*$, and $x^*$ is in the weak* closure of $S$. Must $x^*$ lie in the weak* closure of some norm-bounded subset of $S$?
(If $x^*$ is the weak* limit of a sequence of elements of $S$ then this is clear by Banach-Steinhaus. But a convergent net of scalars need not be bounded...)

The Krein-Smulian theorem says that for a convex set $S$, having weak*-closed intersections with closed balls implies being weak*-closed. The fact that convexity is required here suggests that the answer to your question should be negative. And it is.
Let $X=\ell^2$. In the dual space, also $\ell^2$, consider the "infinite ellipsoid" $$ S = \left\{y : \sum_{n=1}^\infty y_n^2/n^2=1\right\} $$ Every line through the origin meets $S$; therefore, $0$ is in the weak closure of $S$.
On the other hand, $0$ is not in the weak closure of any intersection $S\cap B_R$ where $B_R=\{y:\|y\|\le R\}$. Indeed, consider the weak-open sets $$ U_N = \left\{y: \sum_{n=1}^N y_n^2 < \frac12\right\} $$ If $N$ is large enough, then for every $y\in U_N\cap B_R $ we have $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty y_n^2/n^2 < \frac12+ \frac{R^2}{(N+1)^2} < 1 $$ hence $U_N\cap (B_R\cap S)= \varnothing$.