Does every point wise convergent $f_n$ has a uniformly convergent subsequence?

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as the question above states - could you prove or provide a counter example to the statement that every pointwise convergent function has a UC subsequence?
Also a bit unrelated but could you also recommend some explanatory videos on the subject similar to the ones prof Leonard has on YouTube? These subjects just don’t sit well with me.

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A sequence of functions $f_n(x)$ is pointwise convergent to $f(x)$ over some domain $D$ if $$ \forall \epsilon>0\ \ ,\ \ \forall x\in D\ \ ,\ \ \exists N(x,\epsilon)\ \ , \ \ n>N(x,\epsilon)\implies |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon $$ and is uniformly convergent if $$ \forall \epsilon>0\ \ ,\ \ \exists N(\epsilon)\ \ , \ \ \forall x\in D\ \ ,\ \ n>N(\epsilon)\implies |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon $$ The sequence $f_n(x)=x^n$ over $D=(0,1)$ is pointwise convergent to $f(x)=0$ since $$ \forall x\in (0,1)\ \ ,\ \ n>\log_x \epsilon \implies |x^n-0|<\epsilon $$ but, there is no subsequence of $f_n(x)$ that is uniformly convergent.