I'm working on a problem involving applying FLT to matrices, so any information about how to do this or prove this is true would be helpful. I've been doing some research and experimenting a little, but right now I'm trying to do a little proof. My specific question is this:
Suppose you have a matrix $A$ and a prime number $p$. If $A^p=A$ mod $p$, then is $A$ diagonalizable? I've already shown that the reverse direction is true.
Any help would be appreciated!
The matrix $A=\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 2 \cr 0 & 2 \end{pmatrix}$ satisfies $A^p\equiv A$ mod $p$ for $p=2$, but is not diagonalizable. There are generalisations of Fermat's little theorem, but they involve the trace of matrices, see http://www.math.binghamton.edu/mazur/papers/pub5.pdf.