I am trying to see whether or not $$\int\limits_{3}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{(x-2)^{3/2}}\text{ d}x$$ converges. My first instinct was to notice in $[3, \infty)$ that $$\dfrac{1}{(x-2)^{3/2}} > \dfrac{1}{x^{3/2}}\text{.} $$ But $\displaystyle\int\limits_{3}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{x^{3/2}}\text{ d}x$ converges, so that does not give me any helpful information.
As I started typing this question, I thought of the following idea: does it suffice to show that $$\lim\limits_{t\to \infty}\int\limits_{3}^{t}\dfrac{1}{(x-2)^{3/2}}\text{ d}x$$ exists?
The existence of $$\lim_{t\to\infty}\int_3^t\frac1{(x-2)^{3/2}}dx$$ is exactly what is meant by the statement that $$\int_3^\infty\frac1{(x-2)^{3/2}}dx$$ converges. But you don’t have to make an indirect argument, as you can evaluate the limit (i.e., the improper integral) directly: just substitute $u=x-2$.