Does it make sense to write the complex plane as the cartesian product between $\mathbb{R}$ and $i\mathbb{R}$?

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Note: this question is inspired by someone (a teacher long time ago) who drew and labeled the two axes of the standard complex plane as $\mathbb{R}$ and $i\mathbb{R}$.

Let $i\mathbb{R} = \{iy| y\in \mathbb{R}, i \text{ is the imaginary unit}\}$

Does it make sense to write the complex plane $\mathbb{C}$ as:

$\mathbb{C} = \mathbb{R} \times i\mathbb{R}$?

Doing so, gives me that,

$\mathbb{C} = \{(x,iy)| x \in \mathbb{R}, iy \in i\mathbb{R}\}$

But then again, the complex plane is usually defined as:

$\mathbb{C} = \{z| z = x+iy, x \in \mathbb{R}, y \in \mathbb{R}\}$

How to resolve these two seemingly different definitions?

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It makes perfect sense to define $\mathbb{C}$ in terms of $\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$, with addition defined by $$(a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)$$ and multiplication defined by $$(a, b)(c, d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).$$ Structurally, this is absolutely identical to any of the other definitions of complex numbers. If you're happy to abuse notations and notate such pairs of the form $(a, 0)$ by the real number $a$, and denote by $i$ the element $(0, 1)$, then $(a, b) = a + ib$ for any $a, b \in \mathbb{R}$.

So, how do we resolve the difference between this and other definitions? Well, we take the view that it doesn't matter. Whether you view complex numbers as matrices of the form $\begin{pmatrix} x & -y \\ y & x \end{pmatrix}$, or as elements of the splitting field $\mathbb{R}[x]/\langle x^2 + 1 \rangle$, or as ordered pairs from the definition above, the fact is that all of them produce an identical structure, and it is very simple to change between them in a way that respects addition and multiplication.

(FYI, I didn't define $\mathbb{R} \times i\mathbb{R}$, because, before defining complex numbers, it's not clear what $i$ actually is. Sure, you can say it's the square root of $-1$, but that only shows the property it's supposed to satisfy, not what it really is, or what context it can be well-defined.)

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As points, it makes sense. As additive groups, it makes sense. But there is no natural multiplication on $\Bbb R\times i\Bbb R$ because the multiplication on $i\Bbb R$ isn't closed (it is not a ring, at least not with the standard multiplication). And even if there were, the multiplication in $\Bbb C$ is not isomorphic to the natural multiplication of any (non-trivial) direct product of rings.

As for how to reconcile the seemingly different definitions where they do make sense, you apply the "obvious" bijections / isomorphisms.