We do not know whether $\pi$ consists every real number in its decimals, or not. However, If we assume that $\pi$ is consisted in $\pi$ then (I think) we reach a contradiction.
$\pi=\underbrace{3.14159265359...}_{n\; terms}\underbrace{314159265359...}_{\pi's\; decimals}$
Then we have:
$\pi 10^{n-1}=\underbrace{314159265359.....}_{an\;integer}\underbrace{.}_{dot}314159265359....$
$\lfloor x\rfloor$ : greater integer function
so
$$\pi 10^{n-1}=\lfloor\pi10^{n-1}\rfloor+\dfrac{\pi}{10}\\ \Rightarrow \pi\underbrace{(10^n-1)}_{\in \mathbb Z}=\underbrace{10\lfloor\pi10^{n-1}\rfloor}_{\in \mathbb Z}$$
However, it is contradiction.
Result: If the calculation is true, then can we exactly say that $\pi$ does not consist every number? Or can we just say that $\pi$ doesnot consist of $\pi$?
Edit:
In comment section, as @fleablood has mentioned, I wanted to draw attention to what if $\pi$ has interesting irrationals in it (I mean at its tail), how can we verify.
Your argument applies in greater generality. In fact, it is a proof that any real number with decimal expansion that eventually repeats is rational.
In your case, you assumed that $\pi$ had repeating decimal expansion, and then proved it was rational.