I know that if $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ is an integrable function such that $f(x) \ge 0,~\forall~x \in [a,b],$ then $$\int\limits_a^b f(x) \mathrm{d}x \ge 0.$$
What happens if we replace the condition $f(x) \ge 0$ by the condition $f(x)>0$? Will the last inequality be also strict?
I tried to use Riemann sums but taking the limit turns $>$ into $\ge$.
If the function in continuous, then you can use a lower-bounding argument as follows:
EDIT:
If it is not continuous, take an interval $[a',b']$ inside $[a,b]$ such that $f(x)$ is continuous on $[a',b']$, then you can use the same argument to say that $$\int _{a'}^{b'} f(x) \mathrm d x >0,$$ then use the nonnegativity of $f(x)$ to say that $$\int_a^b f(x) \mathrm d x \geq \int_{a'}^{b'} f(x) \mathrm d x > 0.$$