To simplify I will ask in $\mathbb{R}^2$, but I think it will work in any dimension, if I have an open and bounded domain $\Omega$ and a function $u \in W^{1,p}(\Omega)$, is it true that for almost every $x$ the function $u_{x}(y) = u(x,y)$ is in $W^{1,p}(\Omega_{x})$? Where
$$ \Omega_{x} = \{y \in \mathbb{R} \colon (x,y) \in \Omega\}. $$
I tried using Lebesgue Differentiation Theorem, but I got stuck on how to construct the test functions that would be useful, any tips or reference would help me a lot.
There is a very useful theorem about Sobolev spaces sometimes referred to as "Absolute Continuity on Lines". In the theorem, $\mathcal{L}^{N}$ is the $N$-dimensional Lebesgue measure.
I'll stick to two dimensions from here to keep it simple, but this theorem should also help with general dimensions. In two dimensions, this theorem says that for $u \in W^{1, p}(\Omega)$, there is a representative $\bar{u}$ such that the functions $\bar{u}_{x}(y)$ are absolutely continuous with partial derivatives in $L^{p}(\Omega_{x})$ for almost every $x$. Combine that with the fact that $\bar{u}_{x} \in L^{p}(\Omega_{x})$ for almost every $x$ due to $u$ being in $L^{p}(\Omega)$ (using Fubini's theorem), and you have that $\bar{u}_{x} \in W^{1, p}(\Omega_{x})$ for almost every $x \in \mathbb{R}$.