I think that this is a popular fallacy that GCH implies that every uncountable cardinal is of the form $2^\kappa$ for some $\kappa$. I think it does imply that for successor cardinals only. It cannot be true for all limits, right?
Does $\sf GCH$ imply that every uncountable cardinal is of the form $2^\kappa$?
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Yes, you are right. But even more than that. Since $2^\kappa=\kappa^+$ for every infinite cardinal, it follows that there is no $\kappa$ such that $2^\kappa$ is a limit cardinal.
To see why, note that if $2^\kappa=\lambda$ then $\kappa<\lambda$, if $\lambda$ is a limit cardinal then $2^\kappa=\kappa^+<\lambda$ as well.
(If you look closely at this argument, you'll see that it shows that if $\delta$ is a limit ordinal, then $\beth_\delta$ is not $2^\kappa$ for any $\kappa$. And under $\sf GCH$ the definitions of $\aleph$ and $\beth$ coincide.)
If you want to talk about "most", then in some sense this show that most cardinals are not $2^\kappa$, since the limit cardinals make a closed and unbounded class in the ordinals (and in the cardinals). Therefore we can regard them as "full measure", in some sense.
In fact, one can prove in ZFC that some infinite cardinals are not of form $2^\kappa$, regardless of whether the GCH holds or not. For example, $\aleph_\omega$ cannot be $2^\kappa$ for any $\kappa$, since it has cofinality $\omega$, and so $(\aleph_\omega)^\omega>\aleph_\omega$ by König's theorem, whereas $(2^\kappa)^\omega=2^{\kappa\cdot\omega}=2^\kappa$ for any infinite $\kappa$.