Does square difference prove that 1 = 2?

Question

I was mathematically shown 1 = 2 by a function that states the following

$$x^2-x^2 = x^2-x^2 $$ $$x(x-x)=(x-x)(x+x)$$

dividing by $(x-x)$ we get...

$$x=x+x$$ $$ x=2x$$ $$1=2$$

I can see that mathematically he was right, but for sure that I was missing something as it doesn't make mathematical sense

Answer 1

So this does not go unanswered...as others have mentioned, the obvious error is that you are dividing by $0$ by when you divide by $x-x$. Thus, whatever conclusion you reach is most certainly flawed.

The irksome thing in this case is that the flaw is hardly subtle. I would recommend you see this post for a much more interesting attempt to fool readers into thinking $0=1$.

Answer 2

0/0 is not equal to 1

You assumed it to be 1 when you divided by (x-x)

Answer 3

When it shows x(x-x) it is not adding x to 0 it is multiplying. In basic maths you learn that 5(7-2) is the same as 5 multiplied by (7-2)