Does $\sum_{k \ \text{odd}, \ k>0}^{N} \frac{\sin(kx)}{k}$ converge to $f(x)$ uniformly?

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I calculated the Fourier coefficients of the square wave.

$$ f(x) = \begin{cases} -1, & x\in [-\pi, 0) \\ 1, & x\in [0, \pi] \end{cases} $$

Then I came to the conclusion that the $N^{th}$ partial Fourier sum is given by

$$ S_{N,f}(x) = \frac{4}{\pi} \sum_{k \ \text{odd}, \ k > 0 }^{N} \frac{\sin(kx)}{k} $$

Now does $S_{N,f}(x)$ converge to $f(x)$ uniformly?

What are some usefull theorems I can use here? Or must I prove it by def. of uniformly convergence? I found a theorem called Weierstrass M test. But I dont think it is usefull here, since the only bound for $|\frac{\sin(kx)}{k}|$ that I can come up with is $\frac{1}{k}$ which is not helpful.

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If a sequence of continuous functions converges uniformly, they converge to a continuous function (see the uniform convergence theorem). Since $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}S_{n,f}$ is not continuous, the convergence cannot be uniform even if you redefine your function to be $0$ at $x=0$.