If A and B are two bounded linear operations such that A = B then does it follow that $A^* = B^*$?
I feel like the answer should be yes because adjoints are unique, but I'm still having some doubts. Any consideration is appreciated.
If A and B are two bounded linear operations such that A = B then does it follow that $A^* = B^*$?
I feel like the answer should be yes because adjoints are unique, but I'm still having some doubts. Any consideration is appreciated.
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