Let $G$ be an abstract or algebraic group, then ist it true that $(G^{der})^{ad}=G^{ad}$? If yes, how does the proof go? If not, under what conditions is this true?
2026-03-27 18:57:08.1774637828
Does the equality $(G^{der})^{ad}=G^{ad}$ always hold?
31 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in GROUP-THEORY
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