I've been reading about methods to compute zeros of the riemann-zeta function by finding sign changes of the Z-function, but the paper I was reading didn't address whether or not it was possible for the Z-function to just touch the x-axis without crosssing it.
Can this happen? And if not, why not?
Thanks!
Edit: In the comments there was a bit of confusion over what the Z-function is, by the Z-function I'm referring to this.