Does there exist an analytic function $f:\{z\in\mathbb{C}:0<|z|<1\}\to\mathbb{C}$ such that $\displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}[z^{-3}f^2(z)]=1$?
I'm assuming that there is not such a function, so I've been trying to prove this. Assuming that such a function does exist, there have been a few ideas I've tried. The first was the following:
$\displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}[z^{-3}f^2(z)]=1\implies g:\{z\in\mathbb{C}:0<|z|<1\}\to\mathbb{C}$ by $g(z):=z^{-3}f^2(z)$ has a removable singularity at $z=0$, and so $\displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}z^{-2}f^2(z)=0\implies \displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}z^{-1}f(z)=0$, and then I get stuck.
Another attempt was the following (still assuming, in hopes of contradiction, that such a function $f$ exists):
$\displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}[z^{-3}f^2(z)]=1\implies\lim_{z\to0}[(z^{-1}f^{2/3}(z))^3]=1\implies\lim_{z\to0}[z^{-1}f^{2/3}(z)]=$ some cube root of unity. From this, we can get that $f^{2/3}(z)$ as a removable singularity at $z=0$, and so $\displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}f^{2/3}(z)=0$. Now I know that we define $f^{2/3}(z)=\exp[\frac{2}{3}\log[f(z)]]$ (where $\log$ is a branch of the logarithm), but again I get stuck here.
I realize that nowhere in either attempt did I use the fact that $f$ is defined on the punctured disk, and maybe using a power series would be helpful? I don't really know. Any help would be appreciated; this is preparation for a qualifying exam and do not feel confident in my analysis skills at all.
Hint:
$$\lim_{z\to0}[z^{-3}f^2(z)]=1 \implies f(z)=\frac{1}{z^{3/2}}\frac{1+a_1z+a_2z^2+\cdots}{1+b_1z+b_2z^2+\cdots}$$