Does this equation have a solution in the integers: $4^n= \dfrac{x^2+y^2+z^2+w^2}{2}$?
Obvious manipulation gives $x^2+y^2+z^2+w^2 = 2^{2n+1}\Rightarrow n\geq 0.$ I tried thinking of the case where only one of them is $1$ and the rest are zeros, but that would mean $n=-\dfrac{1}{2},$ which is impossible. After a little more experimentation, I'm pretty confident that there are no such solutions, but I'm stuck as to how to prove this. I think Fermat's Method of Infinite Descent may be useful here.
There are exactly $24$ solutions. You can answer this using modular forms (which gives a quantitative answer to the general Lagrange problem) but that is overkill, it is elementary to do directly, and see exactly what these $24$ solutions are.
Suppose that
$$a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2 = 2 \cdot 4^n.$$
Suppose for now that $n \ge 1$. Then the RHS is divisible by $8$. On the other hand, any square is either $0,1,4 \pmod 8$. By considering this mod $4$, either all terms are even or all terms are odd. But if all terms are odd, the LHS is $4 \pmod 8$. Hence all the terms are even, and then you get the equation
$$(a/2)^2 + (b/2)^2 + (c/2)^2 + (d/2)^2 = 2 \cdot 4^{n-1}.$$
By repeating this, you end up with the case of $n = 0$ where the arguments modulo $8$ do not occur. But clearly the solutions to $a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2=2$ are ju st the $24$ solutions given by permutations of
$$(\pm 1)^2 + (\pm 1)^2 + 0^2 + 0^2 = 1.$$
Hence there are $24$ solutions to the original equation given by permutations of
$$(\pm 2^n)^2 + (\pm 2^n)^2 + 0^2 + 0^2 = 2 \cdot 4^n.$$