Say we've shown that some statement $P(1)$ is true. Suppose that we can show $P(m) \iff P(m-1)$. Then, we will have shown $P(m) \iff P(1)$, so $P(m)$ is true. This makes sense, right?
So, with more context, let's say that we would like to show a graph that depends on $n$ with certain properties exists. Then, if we show that it exists for $n = 1$ and then we show that if a graph exists for arbitrary $n$ then we may get the $n-1$ case through edge/vertex deletions, can we say it holds for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$? To be more precise, is this general vertex/edge deletion a "reversible process"?
False theorem. For all $n$, there is a simple graph with $n$ vertices and $n^2-1$ edges.
Proof. This exists for $n=1$: take the graph with $1$ vertex and no edges.
Suppose it exists for $n$ vertices. Then by deleting a vertex of some degree $k$, and then deleting $(2n-1)-k$ more edges arbitrarily, we get a simple graph with $n-1$ vertices and $(n-1)^2-1$ edges.
This is an instance of the problem. In general, deleting things is not reversible, since you may end up getting from an impossible graph to a possible graph by deleting the places where it's impossible. Even in cases where it is reversible, your proof would be cleaner if you constructed the graphs "forward" rather than "backward".