The sequence $(a_n)_{n \geq 1}$ is defined as follows:
$$a_n:= \begin{cases} 0 \quad \text{if} \quad n \quad \text{is odd}\\ n \quad \text{if} \quad n \quad \text{is even}\end{cases} \quad .$$
Does $(a_n)_{n \geq 1}$ diverge to $+\infty \quad ?$
The sequence $(a_n)_{n \geq 1}$ is defined as follows:
$$a_n:= \begin{cases} 0 \quad \text{if} \quad n \quad \text{is odd}\\ n \quad \text{if} \quad n \quad \text{is even}\end{cases} \quad .$$
Does $(a_n)_{n \geq 1}$ diverge to $+\infty \quad ?$
On
no, because a sequence is divergent to $+\infty$ if and only if (by definition): $$ \forall M\in\mathbb{R^+}:\exists\nu\in\mathbb{N}\ \ |\ \ n\gt\nu \implies a_n > M $$ which is obviously false since when n is odd: $$ \forall M\in\mathbb{R^+},n\in\mathbb{N},n \mbox{ odd}:\ \ \ a_n < M \ \ \ \ \ (\mbox{because } a_n=0) $$
The sequence is actually oscillating sequence. You can't say this sequence diverge to ∞. Because of the definition of divergence to infinity. But it has a divergent subsequence.