Domain of holomorphicity of $$f(z)=\frac{1}{e^z+1}$$
Is this simply everywhere, because there is no $\bar z$ dependence?
2026-03-27 16:27:46.1774628866
Domain of holomorphicity of $f(z)=\frac{1}{e^z+1}$
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1
What happens if $z=(2n-1)\pi i$?