If given that a function $f$ is Riemann Integrable on $[a,b]$, is it necessary for the domain of $f$ to be $[a,b]$ or could the domain of $f$ be a set $D \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ with $[a,b] \subset D$?
2026-04-06 11:36:06.1775475366
Domain of Riemann integrable function
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