Is what I did here correct?
I'm trying to solve for $f(x)$ given $f''(x).$
$$f''(x) = \frac{1}{x^2} = x^{-2}$$
$$f'(x) = -x^{-1} = \frac{-1}{x}$$
$$f(x) = - \ln{x}$$
I guess the rules for antiderivation are for every $x$ to an exponent except for when the exponent is $-1?$
You missed the integration constant.
$$f'(x) = -x^{-1} = \frac{-1}{x}+C$$ $$f(x) = -\ln x + Cx + D$$