I'm quite confused about the direct sum.
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space and $W_i$ its subspaces.
Firstly can anyone give a counterexample of
$dim(V)=dim(W_1)+dim(W_2)+...+dim(W_k) \implies V=W_1\oplus W_2\oplus...\oplus W_k$ ?
I know that the opposite implication is true of course, but I cannot understand how this one must be false.
Secondly I don't understand why if I add the condition $V=W_1+W_2+...+W_k$
then this becomes true, infact I know that
$V=W_1\oplus W_2\oplus...\oplus W_k \iff V=W_1+W_2+...+W_k \wedge dim(V)=dim(W_1)+dim(W_2)+...+dim(W_k)$
In general isn't the condition $V=W_1+W_2+...+W_k$ automatically implied by $dim(V)=dim(W_1)+dim(W_2)+...+dim(W_k)$ ?
I mean, supposing $dim(V)=dim(W_1)+dim(W_2)+...+dim(W_k)$ but $V\neq W_1+W_2+...+W_k$ then there would be at least a vector $v$ in $V$ but not in $W_1+W_2+...+W_k$ that spans a one dimensional vector space $\mathscr{L}(v)$, which is a contradiction because $dim(V)=dim(W_1)+dim(W_2)+...+dim(W_k)$
Am I missing something?
Thanks a lot for your help
Let me give you a simple example. Suppose we have a $3$-dimensional space $V$, and $L$ is a $1$-dimensional subspace. Set $L_1=L_2=L_3=L$. Then the dimensions add up, yet $V$ is not the direct sum of $L_1,L_2,L_3$. Technically it is isomorphic to this direct sum as a vector space, but that's not the same as actually being the (internal) direct sum.
The implication fails any time two of the subspaces intersect nontrivially; then the sum simply can't be direct.