In the book of Mathematical Analysis II by Zurich, at page 116 it is asked that
Show that if a set $E \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ is the direct product of $\mathbb{R}\times e$ of the line $\mathbb{R}$, and a set $e \subset \mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ of (n-1) dimensional measure zero, then $E$ is a set of n-dimensional measure zero.
But, I cannot see how can this be, and do not know how to prove it, so I would appreciate any help for proving this statement.
Edit:
I do not understand the given answer, so please feel free to post another answers.
From the construction of the product measure $\lambda_n$ (Lebesgue measure of $\mathbb{R}^n$),
So here (using also that if $E_m \uparrow E$, $\lim_{m\rightarrow +\infty}\lambda_n(E_m)=\lambda_n(E)$) $$\begin{align*} \lambda_n(E)&= \lambda_n(\mathbb{R}\times e) \\ &=\lim_{m\rightarrow +\infty}\lambda_n((-m,m)\times e)\\ &=\lim_{m\rightarrow +\infty}\lambda_1((-m,m))\times \lambda_{n-1}(e)\\ &=\lim_{m\rightarrow +\infty}\lambda_1((-m,m)) \times 0 \\ &= 0 \end{align*} $$