Could you please help me?
In book Rüdiger Seydel "Tools for Computational Finance" in Chapter 4.5 "American Options as Free Boundary Problem" it is provided the following explanation for case $S>S_f$ , where $S_f$ is contact point:
If $S>S_f$, then early-exercise causes immediate loss, because
$-V+K-S<0$.
Well, we have options so in case of early exercise we should borrow $1$ risky asset and seal it with price $K$. So our current payoff will be $K$.
Why here is $-V+K-S$ ?
Thank you.
2026-04-02 23:38:01.1775173081
Early-exercise point of American Put
109 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
1
By the definition of $S_f$ (eqn 4.22), we have $V^{am}_P(S, t) > (K - S)^+$ whenever $S > S_f(t)$. Rearranging, $-V^{am}_P + (K - S)^+ < 0$, so we have
$-V^{am}_P + K - S \leq -V^{am}_P + (K - S)^+ < 0$