What is a nice way to prove that the cardinality of $\mathbb R$ is equal to that of the power set, $P(\mathbb Z)$, of the integers...
This is something I figured out while an undergraduate at Berkeley. I remember Spanier taught it to us in his course Intro to the theory of functions and point set topology.
My favorite part is that there's a natural way to associate a binary number with a subset of the integers, and vice-versa. The only technicality being that some numbers have two binary representations. Luckily those are all rational, so there are only countably many.
Of course, by Cantor's diagonalization argument, we know $|P(\Bbb Z)|\gt \aleph_0$. It is not that much of a stretch, the continuum hypothesis notwithstanding, that it would be $\mathfrak c$. See my answer for a little rigor.
$Y^X$ is typically used to denote the space of all functions $f:X\rightarrow Y$. Consider $2^X$, the space of all functions f from $X$ to a two element set, $f:X\rightarrow \{0,1\}$.
Evidently this is just the power set of $X$, $P(X)$... (for $x\in X$ let $x\in S $ if $f(x)=1$, and $x\notin S$ if $f(x)=0$).
We will need that the positive reals have the same cardinality as the reals: $\lvert \mathbb R^+\rvert=\lvert \mathbb R\rvert$
Next note that every $r\in \mathbb R^+$ can be expressed in binary.
This gives a function into $2^{\mathbb Z}$ in that the $n$-th place will have a $1$ or a $0$... This correspondence is $1-1$...
Thus $\lvert \mathbb R\rvert \le \lvert 2^{\mathbb Z}\rvert $.
Now the reverse inequality...
Note that $\lvert \mathbb N\rvert=\lvert \mathbb Z\rvert$.
So we can restrict our attention to binary numbers* between $0$ and $1$... This gives us a $1-1$ mapping from ${2^{\mathbb N}}'\to [0,1]\subset \mathbb R$...
*Note: we exclude duplicate binary representations; namely those ending in all $1$ 's... these are all rational, so constitute a countable set... taking out the elements of $2^{\mathbb N}$ corresponding to these binary representations results in a set, ${2^{\mathbb N}}'$, with the same cardinality...