We know that if $\lambda (\neq 0)$ is an eigenvalue of a matrix $A$ corresponding to eigenvector $X$, then $\dfrac{1}{\lambda}$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$. But whether the corresponding eigenvector is $X$ again?
2026-03-29 22:26:45.1774823205
Eigenvalues and eigenvectors of a matrix
55 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
If $Av = \lambda v$, then
$$v = Iv = A^{-1} Av = A^{-1} \lambda v = \lambda A^{-1} v$$