The function $$ \exp\left(\tan\left(\frac{1}{z}\right)\right) $$ obviously has a removable singularity at $z=\infty$ and a non-isolated singularity at $z = 0$.
From the real $\tan(x)$ it is clear, that the singularities at $$z_k = \frac{2}{(2k + 1)\pi} \quad (k \in \mathbb{Z})$$ must be essential. Is there an quick and elegant way to show this?
Consider $w=1/z$ and $$ \exp(\tan(1/z)) = \exp(\tan(w)) = \exp(\tan(w)) $$ Now set $$ k\pi+\frac{\pi}{2}-w=u $$ so that the expression becomes $$ \exp(\cot u) $$ When $z\to z_k$, we have $w\to 1/z_k$ and $u\to0$. This function has an obvious essential singularity at $0$.