The problem given is this:
$\bigcap_{i \in I}(A_i \cup B_i)$ and $(\bigcap_{i \in I}A_i) \cup(\bigcap_{i \in I}B_i)$
I am asked if they are the same. Here is the reasoning I used:
for the first one: $\forall x(\forall i \in I(x \in A_i \vee x \in B_i))$
for the second one: $\forall x(\forall i \in I(x \in A_i) \vee \forall i \in I(x \in B_i))$
And using this for two families of sets:
$A_2 = \{2, 4\}, A_3 = \{3, 6\}$
$B_2 = \{2, 3\}, B_3 = \{3, 4\}$
I can't get the proper results which are:
$\bigcap_{i \in I}(A_i \cup B_i)$ = $\{3, 4\}$
$(\bigcap_{i \in I}A_i) \cup(\bigcap_{i \in I}B_i)$ = $\{3\}$
What I get is that they both contain all elements and are both equal, where am I going wrong with this?
Let's see:
$$(A_2\cup B_2)\cap (A_3\cup B_3)=\{2,3,4\}\cap\{3,4,6\}=\{3,4\}$$
$$(A_2\cap A_3)\cup(B_2\cap B_3)=\emptyset\cup\{3\}=\{3\}$$