I am wondering the following question.
Let $A$ be a ring. Is it always true that End$_A(A)\cong A$. Is true when $A$ is semisimple?
I tried to give an isomorphism $\phi$ between End$_A(A)$ and $A$. $\phi(f)=f(1)$, but I don't know if I am right.
Thanks for your help.
Yes and no: you have to specify the side of the module or if your ring is commutative or not to get a clear statement and answer.
For any ring with identity,
$End(R_R)\cong R$ and $End(_RR)\cong R^{op}$
using the obvious map that you're suggesting.