I’m trying to solve this problem:
given $F=\mathbb{Z}^n$ and $\phi\colon F \to F$, prove that $F/\operatorname{Im}\phi$ is finite if and only if $\det \phi \neq 0$.
So, my attempt:
$\det \phi \neq 0 \Rightarrow \operatorname{Ker} \phi \neq 0 \Rightarrow \dim(\operatorname{Im} \phi)<n$. And then I am stuck. Why $F/\operatorname{Im} \phi$ should be finite?
If $\det\phi=0$, then the $(\operatorname{Im}\phi)\otimes \Bbb R$ is a proper subspace, hence does not contain one of the standard base vectors, say $e_k\notin (\operatorname{Im}\phi)\otimes \Bbb R$. Then $me_k\notin (\operatorname{Im}\phi)\otimes \Bbb R$ for all $m\ne 0$ and hence $e_k$ generates a supbgroupg $\cong \Bbb Z$ in $\Bbb Z^n/\operatorname{Im}\phi$.
On the other hand, if $\det\phi\ne 0$, then the $\phi(e_i)$ are a basis of the vector space $\Bbb Q^n$. Hence for every $x\in \Bbb Z^n$ there are rationals $q_i$ such that $x=\sum q_i \phi(e_i)$. After multiplication with the common denominator, we see that an integer multiple of $x$ is in $\operatorname{Im}\phi$. Thus all elements of $\Bbb Z^n/\operatorname{Im}\phi$ have finite order. A n abelian group that is finitely generated by elements of finite order is finite.