The following question seems to be true but I'm unable to prove. Any help in this direction is welcome. Thank you.
Let $n \geqslant 2$ and let $A,B\in GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ be two symmetric, invertible matrices with the same leading $(n-1)\times (n-1)$ principal submatrices and let us suppose that $\det A$, $\det B$ have the same sign. Is it true that $A,B$ have same signature? Note that, we are not assuming the leading $(n-1)\times (n-1)$ principal submatrix to be invertible.
We can prove this as a consequence of the Cauchy interlacing theorem. Let $M$ be the leading $(n - 1) \times (n - 1)$ matrix that $A$ and $B$ have in common, and let $\mu_1 \leq \mu_2 \leq \cdots \leq \mu_{n-1}$ denote its eigenvalues. The eigenvalues $\lambda_1 \leq \cdots \leq \lambda_n$ of $A$ must satisfy $$ \lambda_1 \leq \mu_1 \leq \lambda_2 \leq \cdots \leq \lambda_{n-1} \leq \mu_{n-1} \leq \lambda_n. $$
If $M$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, then we find that the signature of $A$ is forced (so that $A$ and $B$ necessarily have the same signature.
In the case where $M$ has all positive eigenvalues, the sign of $\det(A)$ is the sign of $\lambda_1$, and the sign of the remaining eigenvalues are forced. The case where $M$ has all negative eigenvalues is similar.
In the remaining case, we have $\mu_j < 0 < \mu_{j+1}$ for some $j$. In this case, we find that $$ \operatorname{sgn}(\det(A)) = \det(M) \cdot \operatorname{sgn}(\lambda_{j+1}), $$ and the signs of all remaining eigenvalues are forced.