Most people answer $$ a = b + \frac{40}{100}b $$
but I think this should also be right
$$
a - \frac{40}{100}a = b
$$
Is one of them wrong or both are correct?
Or the statement is lacking details of 40% of who (b or a).
Help me solve this question. Thanks.
The phrasing is not clear. Let me rephrase:
$$\textrm{"a is greater than b by 40%"}$$
Let start with the untrue equality $a=b\quad(1) $.
At the moment the LHS is greater than the RHS by $40\%$. To obtain an equality we add $40\%$ on the right side.
$$a=b+0.4\cdot b\Rightarrow \boxed{a=1.4b}$$
Next we can set up an equation for $\textrm{"b is smaller than a by 40%"}$. If we look at $(1)$ we have to subtract $40\%$ at the left side to obtain a true equality.
$$a-0.4a=b\Rightarrow \boxed{0.6a=b}$$ It is worth to notice that this two equations are not equivalent (equal).