This is almost not suitable for this forum but I just can't figure it out by myself:
In an exercise I have the following sentence:
Find the solution the two body problem restricted to a straight line:
$\ddot x(t)=-\frac{Gm}{x^2(t)},\ x(0)=r_0>0,\ \dot x(0)=v_0$
I don't have any problem with the question mathematically, but I was just wondering that from a physical point of view, the acceleration $\ddot x(t)$ that is written in a simplified form that comes from $\ddot x(t)=-\frac{Gmx(t)}{||x(t)||^3} = -\frac{Gmx(t)}{|x(t)|^{3}}=-\text{sign}(x)\frac{Gmx(t)}{x(t)^{3}}=-\text{sign}(x)\frac{Gm}{x(t)^{2}}$
Otherwise the acceleration is always negative, which is not how I imagine the world works.
Or am I wrong?
$$\ddot{x}=-\frac{Gm}{x^2}$$ Is the equation of the free-falling body, when it's dropped from $x(0)>0$. The acceleration is always negative because it's falling downwards, and it can't reach the $x<0$ half-plane. Of course, when $x(0)<0$, we would have $$\ddot{x}=\frac{Gm}{x^2}$$ And your derivation is correct from the vector form of Newton's gravitational law.