Given the equivalence relation $x \sim y \Longleftrightarrow x -y $ is rational on the interval $[0,1)$.
How do we reason* that there are uncountably infinite number of equivalence classes?
*A rigorous proof is not required but still welcome.
Edit
The equivalence relation on $[0,1)$ given by $x∼y⇔x−y$ is rational.
Let $x\in[0,1)$, show that $x/\sim$ is countable (because every element is of the form $x+q$ for some unique rational $q$).
If there would be countably many equivalence classes then $[0,1)$ would be the countable union of countable sets, which is not the case.