Is the below question a mistake? How is this an equivalence relation? For example, how would it even be reflexive? E.g if you pick any A $\subseteq$ $U$, say A = {a, b}, then A ~ A is not true, because both sets are even. Am I just missing something obvious here? In fact it wouldn't be reflexive for any odd # of element set either, e.g. A = {a} since A ~ A would mean neither has an even number of elements.
We have a universal set of lowercase alphabet letters, $U$ = {a, b, ...., z} . For sets A,B $\subseteq$ $U$ we can define a relation, A ~ B as long as the number of elements that are in either A or B, but not both is even. Prove that ~ is an equivalence relation.
You are misinterpreting the phrase "the number of elements that are in either $A$ or $B$, but not both is even."
It does not mean, "one and only one of the sets $A,B$ has an even number of elements".
Correctly understood, it means "the set of all elements belonging to one but not both of the sets $A,B$ has an even number of elements"; i.e., "$(A\cup B)\setminus(A\cap B)$ has an even number of elements".
If $A=B$ then $(A\cup B)\setminus(A\cap B)$ is the empty set, which has an even number of elements.