Let $G$ be a group and define an equivalence relation $R$ on it. Let $G/R$ be the set of equivalence classes of this relation. Then is $G/R$ equal to $G/N$ for some normal subgroup $N$ of $G$?
Sorry, not even sure if the question makes sense. I am trying to basically ask if there is a connection between any equivalence relation defined on a group and normal subgroups of $G$? Or rather, does an equivalence relationship give rise to a normal subgroup? Thank you.
An arbitrary equivalence relation $\sim$ not satisfying any extra conditions won't behave like this; for example, you can pick an equivalence relation such that the equivalence classes don't have the same size.
The correct thing to do is to impose an axiom saying that the group structure on $G$ descends to the quotient $G/\sim$. If you spell this out what it means is that if $g_1 \sim g_2$ and $h_1 \sim h_2$ then $g_1 h_1 \sim g_2 h_2$, or equivalently that the subset
$$\{ (g_1, g_2) \in G \times G : g_1 \sim g_2 \}$$
is a subgroup of $G \times G$. And then you can show that there's a natural bijection between equivalence relations satisfying this property (congruences in the category of groups) and normal subgroups of $G$, where the correspondence goes:
Furthermore this bijection respects quotients in the sense that if $\sim$ corresponds to $N$ then $(G/\sim) \cong G/N$. See this blog post for details. This is, in my opinion, the correct way to introduce normal subgroups to students.
(Going further: exactly the same idea works for rings and gives a bijection between congruences on rings and two-sided ideals. For monoids we really do just have to work with congruences and there's no longer a notion of "normal submonoid" or "ideal of a monoid.")