Let $A$ be a nonempty set and $$ R_1 \text{ and } R_2 $$ be two equivalence relations on $A.$ Investigate whether the following assertions are true or not.
$$R _1 \cup R_2 $$ is an equivalence relation.
$$R_1 \cap R_2$$ is also equivalence relation.
How can i show that following assertions are true or not ? A little bit of help would be enough I guess.
Suppose:
That means $a$ is $R_1\cup R_2$-related to $b$ (i.e. either $R_1$-related or $R_2$-related) and $b$ is $R_1\cup R_2$-related to $c,$ but $a$ is not $R_1\cup R_2$-related to $c.$ Thus $R_1\cup R_2$ is not transitive.
But it's easy to show $R_1\cap R_2$ is an equivalence relation whenever $R_1$ and $R_2$ are equivalence relations on any set:
Suppose $x \mathrel{(R_1\cap R_2)} y$ and $y\mathrel {(R_1\cap R_2)} z.$
Then $x\mathrel{R_1} y$ and $y\mathrel{R_1} z,$ so $x\mathrel{R_1} z.$ And similarly for $R_2.$ Therefore $x \mathrel{(R_1\cap R_2)} z.$ Thus $R_1\cap R_2$ is transitive. And you can do the same with reflexiveness and symmetry.