Prove that if $R$ is an equivalence relation on a set $A$, then $R^{-1}$ is also an equivalence relation on $A$.
Solution:
We know that $\forall R\in A$,
$$ R = \{(a, b) | (b, a)\in A\} $$
Similarly, $\forall R^{-1}\in A$,
$$ R^{-1} = \{(b, a) | (a, b)\in A\} $$
So, we can then prove that $R^{-1}$ is an equivalence relation on $A$. In particular, we know
- For every $R\in A$, $RRR$.
- If $RRA$, then $ARR$.
- If $RRA$ and $ARR^{-1}$, then $RRR^{-1}$.
I don't think this really helps though. Someone please tell me the flaw of my proof/logic? Thanks!
What you write does not make much sense to me. $R$ is supposed to be relation on $A$ which means $R\subseteq A\times A$; so it makes no sense to write $R\in A$, as that will almost never happen ($A$ would have to be pretty weird for it to hold, and in any case it would be irrelevant to the fact that $R$ is an equivalence relation). Also, your description of $R$ does not make much sense. And when you write $RRR$, you seem to be trying to establish a relation $R$ with $R$ itself. Frankly, it reads like you are trying to throw symbols at the wall to see if anything sticks.
Let's start over; $R$ is a subset of $A\times A$, and we know that $R$ is: reflexive (so for every $a\in A$, $(a,a)\in R$; symmetric (if $(a,b)\in R$, then $(b,a)\in R$); and transitive (if $(a,b)\in R$ and $(b,c)\in R$, then $(a,c)\in R$). Now let $R^{-1}$ be the relation: $$R^{-1} = \{ (a,b)\in A\times A \mid ( b,a)\in R\}.$$
We want to show that $R^{-1}$ is reflexive, symmetric, and transitive.
Reflexive: you need to show that for every $a\in A$, $(a,a)\in R^{-1}$. Why is that true? Hint. Remember that for $(a,a)$ to be an element of $R^{-1}$, you need something to be an element of $R$; what?
Symmetric: you need to show that if $(a,b)\in R^{-1}$, then $(b,a)\in R^{-1}$. Why is that true? Hint: If $(a,b)\in R^{-1}$, then $(b,a)\in R$. In order for $(b,a)$ to be in $R^{-1}$, you need $(a,b)\in R$. Why is that the case?
Transitive: You need to show that if $(a,b)\in R^{-1}$ and $(b,c)\in R^{-1}$, then $(a,c)\in R^{-1}$. Use the definition of $R^{-1}$ and the fact that $R$ is an equivalence relation to prove this.
Is this a sufficient push in the right direction? If not, please comment and ask follow-up questions.