Consider the Sobolev space $H^{\frac{1}{2}}(\mathbb{R}^3)$. If $u\in H^{\frac{1}{2}}(\mathbb{R}^3)$, it is true that an equaivalent norm of $H^{\frac{1}{2}}(\mathbb{R}^3)$ is given by $$\Vert (1-\Delta)^{\frac{1}{4}}u\Vert_{L^2(\mathbb{R}^3)}?$$
If it is true, could anyone explain me why or give some references?
Thank you in advance!
Yes, it's true. In case you find the notation confusing, it's using the Fourier multiplier functional calculus. In particular, your norm translates to $$\|\mathcal{F}^{-1} (\langle\xi\rangle^{1/2}\mathcal{F}u)\|_{L^2(\mathbb{R}^3)}.$$ In fact, it is usually shown (using basic properties of the Fourier transform) that this definition is equivalent to the usual one for non-negative integer-order Sobolev spaces, then it is taken as the definition for real numbers.
See chapter 4 of Michael Taylor's Partial Differential Equations I: Basic Theory.