I'm trying to solve this question:
Let $f$ be the function defined for $x \in (0;1): f(x) = \int_x^{x^2} \dfrac{1}{\ln y}\,dy$.
Show that
$$\forall x \in (0;1), x^2 \ln2 \le \ f(x) \leq x \ln2$$
Probably it's nothing difficult, but I'm completely blocked. Because I'm not able to compute that integral, I've find the $\int_x^{x^2} \dfrac{dy}{y \ln y}$, an what was my surprise that this integral equal $\ln 2$. However, there I've finished. I have no idea how to use this result, or if it's possible to use it somehow.
I wanted to make some estimates of $\dfrac{1}{y}$, but it didn't make any sense.
If you had some little hint for help me, I would be so happy.
You are on the right track. Simply write
$$\int_x^{x^2}\frac{1}{\log y}\,dy=\int_x^{x^2}\frac{y}{y\log y}\,dy$$
Then, we have for $x\in (0,1)$, $0<x^2<x<1$. Therefore,
$$x^2\int_x^{x^2}\frac{1}{y\log y}\,dy\le\int_x^{x^2}\frac{y}{y\log y}\,dy\le x\int_x^{x^2}\frac{1}{y\log y}\,dy$$
Can you finish now?