I've been stuck with this question for a while:
I've learnt how to use t-distribution to estimate CIs for an unknown variance, but I'm unsure how that applies to this situation.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you!
I've been stuck with this question for a while:
I've learnt how to use t-distribution to estimate CIs for an unknown variance, but I'm unsure how that applies to this situation.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you!
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$X_1,\ldots,X_n$ are i.i.d. $\mathcal N(\mu,\sigma^2)$ random variables and $\bar X=n^{-1}\sum_{i=1}^nX_i$. The distributions and confidence intervals are as follow.
(a) $$ \frac1{\sigma^2}\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\bar X)^2\sim\chi_{n-1}^2 $$ and $$ \Pr\biggl(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\bar X)^2}{\chi_{n-1,\alpha/2}^2}\le\sigma^2\le\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\bar X)^2}{\chi_{n-1,1-\alpha/2}^2}\biggr)=1-\alpha. $$ (b) $$ \frac1{\sigma^2}\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\mu)^2\sim\chi_n^2 $$ and $$ \Pr\biggl(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\mu)^2}{\chi_{n,\alpha/2}^2}\le\sigma^2\le\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\mu)^2}{\chi_{n,1-\alpha/2}^2}\biggr)=1-\alpha. $$
(c)
$$ \frac{n(\bar X-\mu)^2}{\sigma^2}\sim\chi_1^2 $$ and
$$ \Pr\biggl(\frac{n(\bar X-\mu)^2}{\chi_{1,\alpha/2}^2}\le\sigma^2\le\frac{n(\bar X-\mu)^2}{\chi_{1,1-\alpha/2}^2}\biggr)=1-\alpha. $$
I hope this helps.