How to prove:
In a Euclidean domain every irreducible element is prime.
My script also says : if $a$ is irreducible (also in an euclidean domain) and if $a$ does not divide $b$ then there is a $c$ such that $a$ divides $(bc-1)$. How can I prove it and what is the intuition behind it?
It also says (still working with an euclidean domain): if $\gcd(a,b)=g$ then there exist $x,y$ such that $g=ax+by$. Is there a simple proof of this ? Whats the intuition behind it? By simple proof I mean a proof which gives insight into why it is like this. I understand the proofs, where you prove that for any $a,b$ the set $\{as+br\mid s,r\}$ out of the euclidean domain is an ideal, but it doesnt help my intuition.
A Euclidean domain is a unique factorization domain. So if $x$ is irreducible and divides $ab,$ then the unique factorization of $ab$ is the product of factorizations of $a$ and $b$, and by uniqueness $x$ must appear as one of those factors.
A Euclidean domain is a principal ideal domain, so prime ideals are maximal. Since $a$ is irreducible, it's prime, that is, $(a)$ is a prime ideal and thus maximal. Since $a$ doesn't divide $b$, $b$ is nonzero in the quotient of our euclidean domain by $(a)$, which is a field, so that $b$ has an inversed modulo $(a)$. Translate this into a statement in the original ring.
The intuition for your third question is that this happens in the integers, and that euclidean domains are very similar to the integers. I'd offer the same intuition for the second question: in the integers an irreducible is just a prime number, so that this becomes the elementary fact of modular arithmetic that $\mathbb Z/p$ is a field.