I'm working through exercises which require me to find the Euler-Lagrange equation for different functionals. I've just come across a case where the Euler Lagrange equation simplifies to $$1=0.$$ Please could someone explain what can be concluded about the set of extremals to problems where this is the case.
2026-04-04 13:04:06.1775307846
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Euler lagrange equation is a constant
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This is breeze can no man do calculus of variations no more? Kmt
$$ L[u]=\int(f(u)u_{x}+u)dx $$
$$ \frac{d}{dx}\left( \frac{\partial F}{\partial u_{x}}\right)-\frac{\partial F}{\partial u}=0 $$
$$ f'(u)u_x +1 -f'(u)u_x=0 $$
$$ 1=0 $$
so for any $u$, the E-L equations is 1=0, thus the set of extremals is empty - hence the functional has no stationary value - consider the graph of $e^x$. Infimum, not minimum. (Do you even math?)
Notation $$L[u]=\int(f(u)u_{x}+u)dx=\int F(u,u_{x})dx $$
$$\frac{d}{dx}\left( \frac{\partial F}{\partial u_{x}}\right)-\frac{\partial F}{\partial u}=0 $$
As $F(u,u_{x})=f(u)u_{x}+u$ we have
$$\frac{\partial F}{\partial u_{x}}=f(u) $$
$$ \frac{\partial F}{\partial u}=\frac{df}{du}\frac{du}{dx}+1$$
so $$ $$
Hence $$\frac{d}{dx}(f(u)+1)-\frac{df(u)}{du}\frac{du}{dx}=0 $$
$$\frac{df}{du}\frac{du}{dx}-\frac{df}{du}\frac{du}{dx}=0 \rightarrow 0=0$$