thanks for opportunity to write on this forum.
I have a problem with logarithmic integral.
1) $$\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log(1+x^2)}{x(1+x^2)}dx $$
2) $$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log(1+x^2)}{x(1+x^2)}dx $$
I try to calculate without a residues theory that it help to reach the goal. I think that it is possible using series sum's and their integration but I have no idea how to start :-(
Can anyone help me? I thank you to all again for precious assistance A.
By enforcing the substitution $\frac{1}{1+x^2}$ and exploiting Euler's Beta function we have $$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{x^a (1+x^2)^{b}}=\frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{1-a}{2}\right)\,\Gamma\left(\frac{a-1+2b}{2}\right)}{2\,\Gamma(b)} $$ for any $a,b$ such that $a\in(0,1)$ and $a+2b>1$. By differentiating both sides with respect to $b$, then considering the limit as $a\to 1^-, b\to 1^-$, we get $$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log(1+x^2)}{x(1+x^2)}\,dx = \frac{1}{2}\,\psi'(1)=\color{red}{\frac{\pi^2}{12}}.$$ I leave to you to adapt this technique (Beta function + Feynman's trick) to the second case, proving $$ \int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log(1+x^2)}{x(1+x^2)}\,dx = \frac{1}{2}\,\psi'(1)=\color{red}{\frac{\pi^2}{24}-\frac{\log^2(2)}{4}}.$$ The reflection formula for the dilogarithm is deeply involved.