Let $f(x)=f(-x)$ for $x\in \mathbb{R}$. If $\int^{3}_{-3}f(x)dx=0$ and $\int^{3}_{-2}f(x)dx=5$, then $\int^{2}_{0}f(x)dx=...$
First I tried this:
$\begin{aligned} \int^{3}_{-3}f(x)dx&=2\int^{3}_{0}f(x)dx\\ \int^{3}_{0}f(x)dx&=0\\\\ \int^{3}_{-2}f(x)dx&=\int^{0}_{-2}f(x)dx+\int^{3}_{0}f(x)dx\\ &=\int^{0}_{-2}f(x)dx \end{aligned}$
Let $u=-x$, then $du=-dx$.
$\begin{aligned} -\int^{0}_{2}f(x)dx&=\int^{2}_{0}f(x)dx\\ &=5 \end{aligned}$
Therefore: $\begin{aligned} \int^{2}_{0}f(x)dx&=5 \end{aligned}$
But I didn't feel it's the right method. From the first hypothesis, we know that $f(x)$ is an even function. To satisfy $\int^{3}_{-3}f(x)dx=0$ then $f(x)$ should be $f(x)=0$. But if I assume $f(x)=0$ then it won't satisfy $\int^{3}_{-2}f(x)dx=5$. My questions are:
- Are there other even function that satisfy $\int^{3}_{-3}f(x)dx=0$ other than $f(x)=0$? As far as I know it's only applied at odd function.
- If not can I use the first method or there's another method to solve the problem?
$$\int_{-3}^3\cos\frac{\pi x}{3}dx=0$$