How can I evaluate this integral?
$$\int\limits_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{1-\cos(ax)}{x}\cos(bx)\operatorname d\!x ,\ \ a > 0, \ b > 0$$
It looks like it can be transformed into Frullani's integral via subsitution but I have no idea how to do it.
Wolfram Alpha evaluates it as:
$$\frac{1}{4}\ln\frac{(a^2-b^2)^2}{b^4}$$
Using the identity $$\cos ax\cos bx=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(a+b)x+\cos(a−b)x),$$ the integral can be written $$\frac{1}{2}\int\limits_{0}^\infty \frac{\cos(bx)-\cos(a+b)x}{x}\,dx+\frac{1}{2}\int\limits_{0}^\infty \frac{\cos(bx)-\cos(a-b)x}{x}\,dx=\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{a+b}{b}+\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{a-b}{b}.$$ One version of the conditions for Frullani integrals is satisfied: $\lim_{x\rightarrow0+}\cos x$ exists ($=1$), and the integrals $\int^{X_2}_{X1}\cos x\,dx$ are bounded.